AMIGOS IAS Daily Current Affairs (5^th August 2024)

Deep-Sea Metals: Vital Resource or Environmental Disaster?

GS 3: Environment and Biodiversity: Deep Sea Mining

Why is it in the news?

• The ocean floor contains vast quantities of metals and rare earths, crucial for technological advancements and renewable energy, but mining these resources risks irreparable damage to marine ecosystems.
• Representatives from around the world recently met in Jamaica to negotiate deep-sea mining regulations under the International Seabed Authority (ISA). Despite extensive discussions, many questions remain unanswered.

More about the news

• The ISA aims to establish legally binding rules for deep-sea mining by 2025. Without these rules, mining operations cannot commence. Discussions have highlighted issues surrounding underwater monitoring and environmental protection.
• Countries like Germany, Brazil, and Palau demand comprehensive environmental impact assessments, while China, Norway, Japan, and Nauru advocate for swift agreements. With 32 out of 169 countries favouring a ban or suspension of deep-sea mining, the future remains uncertain.
• Despite these challenges, the Canadian startup, The Metals Company, plans to apply for a commercial mining license soon.
• Deep-sea mining targets manganese nodules and other minerals in the high seas, areas considered the “common heritage of mankind.” The ISA, managing these activities, has issued 31 exploration licenses, including five to Chinese companies. Other countries like Germany, India, and Russia are also exploring the seabed.
• According to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, any high seas activities, including mining profits, must be equitably shared among states. However, critics doubt the feasibility of this equitable distribution.
• Mining companies are interested in polymetallic nodules, containing manganese, cobalt, copper, and nickel—key components for electric car batteries. The Clarion-Clipperton Zone between Hawaii and Mexico holds significant nodule deposits. Automated vacuum robots would harvest these metals from depths of 4,000 to 6,000 meters.
• Other targeted areas include the Pacific, Indian, and Atlantic Oceans, which also contain polymetallic sulfides and cobalt-rich ferromanganese crusts, albeit harder to recover.
• Manganese nodules and mineral crusts are crucial habitats for over 5,000 marine species, many of which are barely researched. The extreme conditions at these depths make the seabed ecosystem highly fragile.
• Mining activities could destroy these habitats and disturb marine life through light and noise pollution, as well as sediment clouds. Researchers have explored only about 1% of the deep sea, leaving much unknown.
• Marine scientists warn that starting mining without sufficient knowledge could catastrophically impact biodiversity and sea ecosystems, and necessary research could take another 10 to 15 years.
• Countries like China foresee significant profits and secure raw material sources. Mining companies argue that deep-sea mining is less destructive than land mining and could avoid human rights abuses.
• However, a study by the German nonprofit Öko-Institut, commissioned by Greenpeace, suggests that the materials in manganese nodules are not essential for the energy transition, highlighting new battery technologies like lithium-iron-phosphate accumulators.
• Critics also point to underestimated costs and technical risks. Several major companies and insurance firms have pledged not to use or support seafloor-derived raw materials, potentially affecting mining profitability.
• So far, only exploration has occurred. The Metals Company aims to apply for its first commercial mining license from the ISA by the end of 2024, with operations in the Clarion-Clipperton Zone planned for 2026. Norway seeks to start mining in the North Atlantic by 2030, having received parliamentary approval.
• However, the WWF has taken legal action against Norway’s plans due to environmental concerns. Japan is also planning deep-sea mining in its underwater territory.
• Hence, the future of deep-sea mining hinges on regulatory approvals and the resolution of environmental concerns.

Additional Information:

What is Deep Sea Mining?

• Deep-sea mining involves extracting valuable mineral deposits and metals from the ocean’s seabed. This complex process can be categorized into three primary methods:
• Polymetallic Nodule Extraction: Removing deposit-rich polymetallic nodules from the ocean floor. These nodules, rich in metals like nickel, copper, and cobalt, are found scattered across vast areas of the seabed.
• Massive Seafloor Sulfide Mining: Harvesting massive sulfide deposits that form around hydrothermal vents. These deposits contain valuable minerals such as copper, gold, and zinc.
• Cobalt Crust Stripping: Extracting cobalt-rich crusts from rocky surfaces on the ocean floor. These crusts, which contain significant amounts of cobalt, are found on seamounts and other underwater elevations.

Reasons for Growing Interest in Deep-Sea Mining:

1. Depleting Terrestrial Deposits: Stocks of essential metals like copper, nickel, aluminum, manganese, zinc, lithium, and cobalt are dwindling. This scarcity is prompting a shift in focus toward deep-sea mineral deposits.

2. Mineral Resources from Polymetallic Nodules: Polymetallic nodules, rich in valuable metals, are found in deep ocean regions such as the Pacific and Indian Oceans.

3. Enabling New Technologies: Deep-sea mining could provide critical minerals for advanced technologies, including extended-range electric cars, lighter rechargeable batteries, and more weather-resistant wind turbines.

About International Seabed Authority:

• It is an independent global organization created in 1994 under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), with headquarters located in Kingston, Jamaica.
• The other bodies established under UNCLOS are the Commission on the Limits of the Continental Shelf and the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea.
• Its mandate is to regulate mining and related activities in the international seabed area beyond national jurisdiction, which covers most of the world’s oceans.
• The ISA upholds the principle that the Area and its resources are the “Common heritage of Mankind.”
• All 169 States parties to the 1982 UNCLOS, including the European Union, are members of the Authority.

UPSC Civil Services PYQ’s:
Prelims

Q. Consider the following statements: (2021)

1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.

2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters

3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on the seafloor in international waters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Mains:

Q. Critically evaluate the various resources of the oceans which can be harnessed to meet the resource crisis in the world. (2014)

The Joint India-U.S. mission to fly two Gaganyatris to the ISS

GS 3: Science and Technology: Gaganyatris to ISS

Why is it in the news?

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) announced on August 2 that two astronauts selected for India’s maiden human spaceflight mission, ‘Gaganyaan’, will travel to the U.S. in early August to train for a mission to the International Space Station (ISS).
• Wing Commander Shubhanshu Shukla is assigned to fly to the ISS, with Group Captain Prashanth Nair as his backup.

More about the news

• On June 22, 2023, the U.S. and India issued a joint statement following Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s meeting with President Joe Biden, announcing a joint effort to the ISS in 2024.
• The two astronauts, referred to as “Gaganyatris” by ISRO, will participate in this mission. ISRO stated that the Gaganyatris will conduct selected scientific research and technology demonstrations on the ISS, along with space outreach activities.
• The experiences gained will benefit the Gaganyaan mission and strengthen ISRO-NASA human spaceflight cooperation.
• During a visit to the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre in Thiruvananthapuram on February 27, Prime Minister Modi announced the names of the four astronaut-candidates for the Gaganyaan mission: Shubhanshu Shukla, Prashanth Nair, Ajit Krishnan, and Angad Pratap. All four are test pilots with the Indian Air Force and have undergone training in India and Russia.
• NASA will provide advanced training for Mr. Shukla and Mr. Nair at the Johnson Space Centre in Houston, Texas. A “National Mission Assignment Board” selected Mr. Shukla and Mr. Nair for the joint mission, which has been approved by the Multilateral Crew Operations Panel comprising representatives from NASA, Roscosmos, JAXA, ESA, and CSA.
• ISRO’s Human Spaceflight Centre has signed an agreement with Axiom Space, Inc. for the Axiom-4 mission (Ax-4) to the ISS, the fourth crewed mission organized by Axiom Space, a private company based in Houston.
• Axiom plans to operate the world’s first commercial space station, offering human spaceflight services including astronaut selection and training, launch vehicle charters, and space mission management.
• Mr. Shukla or Mr. Nair will fly to the ISS with two other astronauts in a SpaceX Crew Dragon capsule, with the mission scheduled to last 14 days. The mission is expected to launch no sooner than November 2024, though it could be postponed to early 2025.
• ISRO chairman S. Somanath stated that the mission’s primary purpose is to provide the Gaganyatris with flight experience and expose them to the organization and conduct of a spaceflight mission. Mr. Shukla, designated as the prime mission pilot, will undertake significant responsibilities during the mission.
• The Gaganyatris will conduct five different experiments on the ISS, some originating in India and others as part of international collaborations.

Additional Information:

What is the Axiom-4 (Ax-4) Mission?

• NASA and Axiom Space have signed an agreement for the fourth private astronaut mission to the ISS using SpaceX Crew Dragon spacecraft, set to launch in August 2024 from Kennedy Space Center, Florida.
• Previous missions (Ax-1, Ax-2, and Ax-3)
• As part of the Artemis Accords, NASA will provide advanced training to Indian astronauts at one of its facilities, coinciding with a mission that plans to dock with the ISS for a fourteen-day stay.
• This training will focus on spacecraft systems and emergency preparedness.
• The mission crew includes Peggy Whitson, Sławosz Uznanski, Tibor Kapu, and Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla.

About International Space Station:

• The International Space Station (ISS), a multi-nation modular space station, was launched in 1998 and its main construction was completed by 2011.
• Modular design allows adding or removing modules for greater flexibility.
• Orbiting in Low Earth Orbit at an altitude of approximately 430 kilometers, it passes over 90% of the Earth’s population.
• It is a collaboration between 15 countries and five space agencies: NASA (US), Roscosmos (Russia), ESA (Europe), JAXA (Japan), and CSA (Canada).
• It serves as a large laboratory in space, hosting astronauts for extended periods to conduct microgravity experiments aimed at advancing medicine, technology, science, and our understanding of Earth and the universe.
• The station is divided into two sections:
• The Russian Orbital Segment (ROS) – Operated by Russia,
• The United States Orbital Segment (USOS) – Operated by the US as well as many other nations.
• The ownership & use of the space station is established by intergovernmental treaties & agreements.

About Gaganyyan:

• Gaganyaan, an ISRO mission, will send three flights into orbit—two unmanned and one human spaceflight—featuring an Orbital Module with three Indian astronauts, including a woman.
• This mission will be launched using the GSLV Mk III, also known as LVM-3, a three-stage heavy-lift launch vehicle with the required payload capability.
• It will orbit Earth at an altitude of 300-400 km for 5-7 days.
• It’s success would make India the fourth nation to achieve human spaceflight capability, after Russia, the US, and China.
• Significance of Gaganyaan:
• Enhances science and technology levels in India and inspires youth.
• Involves numerous agencies, laboratories, disciplines, industries, and departments.
• Boosts industrial growth.
• A new organization, IN-SPACe, was announced in 2021 to increase private participation in the space sector.
• Supports development of technology for social benefits and also improves international collaboration.
• Promotes regional ecosystems to address food, water, and energy security needs.

UPSC Civil Services Mains PYQ:

Q. What is India’s plan to have its own space station and how will it benefit our space programme? (2019)

The new Alzheimer’s blood test

GS 3: Science and Technology: Detecting Alzheimer

Why is it in the news?

• Researchers have developed a new blood test, PrecivityAD2, to detect Alzheimer’s disease (AD), which is about 90% accurate in identifying AD in people with cognitive symptoms.
• The study by scientists at Lund University in Sweden, published in the July 28 edition of peer-reviewed journal JAMA, highlights that this test can diagnose AD even at the early stage of mild cognitive impairment.

More about the news

• One in five women and one in ten men develop dementia due to AD. The article points out that cognitive symptoms are often first seen in primary care, where symptomatic AD is misdiagnosed in 25% to 35% of patients treated even at specialized clinics, and likely more in primary care.
• Traditionally, AD diagnosis involves expensive and complex amyloid or Tau PET scans, or the painful procedure of drawing cerebrospinal fluid via a lumbar puncture. This new blood test simplifies diagnosis, making it more affordable and less invasive.
• The blood test measures a combination of two ratios within a blood sample: plasma phosphorylated-tau217 (p-tau217) to not-phosphorylated-tau21 and two types of amyloid-beta: AB42 and AB40. These proteins are pathological hallmarks of AD.
• The study involved 1,213 patients evaluated for cognitive decline in primary or secondary care centres in Sweden between February 2020 and January 2024. The test had an accuracy of 91%, compared to dementia specialists’ diagnostic accuracy of 73% and primary care physicians’ accuracy of 61%.
• An accurate and simple blood test for AD could streamline diagnostic workup and treatment, especially as several drugs are effective in the early stages of the disease.
• Moreover, future studies should evaluate how blood tests for these biomarkers influence clinical care. The costs are expected to come down, making the test more affordable.
• However, availability remains a concern. In India, current diagnostic tools are limited to MRI and regular PET scans, as amyloid or Tau PET scans are not commercially available yet. The blood test will likely become available in India, but it remains to be seen if it will be accessible to all or only to a few at reduced rates.

Additional Information:

About Alzheimer’s Disease:

• Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative brain disorder causing memory loss, cognitive decline, behavioural changes, language difficulties, poor judgment, mood swings, and confusion about time and place.
• It is the most common type of dementia, accounting for 60-80% of all dementia cases.
• The exact causes of Alzheimer’s disease are not fully understood, but several factors may contribute:
• Age: The primary risk factor, with most cases occurring in individuals over 65.
• Genetics: Mutations in genes like APP, PSEN1, and PSEN2 can increase risk.
• Amyloid Proteins: Abnormal build-up of amyloid-beta plaques and tau tangles in the brain is associated with the disease.
• Lifestyle Factors: Chronic conditions such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, obesity, smoking, and a sedentary lifestyle may elevate risk.
• Early symptoms of the disease include recent memory loss and difficulty with everyday tasks, which worsen over time.
• Treatment: While Alzheimer’s disease has no cure, medications and supportive therapies can temporarily alleviate symptoms.
• Status: Worldwide, approximately 55 million people are affected by Alzheimer’s, and in India, the number of cases is projected to reach 7.6 million by 2030 due to an aging population.

What is Dementia?

• Dementia is a general term for impaired memory, thinking, or decision-making that disrupts daily activities.
• Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, but there are other types such as Vascular Dementia, Lewy Body Dementia, Frontotemporal Dementia, and Mixed Dementia, each with distinct causes.
• While dementia primarily affects older adults, it is not a normal part of aging.

Direct purchase of rice from FCI for States

GS 3: Economy: FCI/OMSS

Why is it in the news?

• Union Minister for Food and Consumer Affairs, Pralhad Joshi, announced on August 1 that States can now directly purchase rice from the Food Corporation of India (FCI) at ₹2,800/quintal under the Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) without participating in the e-auction.
• This is a reduction from the previous rate of ₹2,900/quintal. Further, the provision of free foodgrains to approximately 81.35 crore beneficiaries under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana will continue for five years from January 1, 2024.
• Minister Joshi also launched the upgraded 4.0 version of the Price Monitoring System (PMS) mobile app, which now tracks prices of 38 commodities daily, including 16 additional food items such as bajra, jowar, ragi, various wheat products, ghee, butter, and several spices and vegetables.

More about the news

• The Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) traditionally sells excess stocks of wheat and rice from the central pool at predetermined prices through e-auctions to control market prices and curb inflation. In 2023, the Ministry sold 3.04 lakh metric tonnes (LMT) of rice via e-auctions.
• The new policy allows States to bypass e-auctions and procure directly from the FCI. The move aims to reduce the central pool’s surplus stocks, which exceeded the buffer norms and annual requirements.
• This revision is particularly beneficial for States running their own food distribution schemes or those that are not self-sufficient in rice production. For example, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Jharkhand, Jammu & Kashmir, and Assam were major purchasers under the OMSS in 2022-23.
• The new policy could ease tensions between the Centre and States over rice distribution, as seen last year when the Centre halted OMSS sales to States, impacting Karnataka’s ‘Anna Bhagya’ scheme.

• According to the former Minister of State for Consumer Affairs, Sadhvi Niranjan Jyoti, FCI had sufficient covered storage capacity to manage central pool stocks, with 762.36 LMT available against a stored stock of 341.01 LMT.
• The availability and management of these stocks are crucial for the public distribution system and maintaining buffer norms.
• The direct procurement option could also prevent political disputes over rice distribution and ensure a more stable and predictable supply for State-run food programs.

Additional Information:

What is the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS)?

• The OMSS program allows FCI to sell surplus wheat and rice at predetermined prices through e-auction in the open market to boost supply especially in deficit regions and stabilize market prices.
• FCI holds weekly OMSS wheat auctions on NCDEX, a major Indian commodity exchange platform for agricultural and other commodities.
• FCI conducts e-auctions where participants include bulk consumers, private traders, State Governments, and Union Territory Administrations can bid for specified quantities of wheat.

About Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY):

• Launched in April 2020 as part of Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package, aiming to offer relief to those adversely affected by the pandemic, especially the poor and marginalised.
• PMGKAY is a food security scheme operated by the Department of Food and Public Distribution under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
• The scheme provides an extra 5 kg of free grains (wheat or rice) per person to those covered by the National Food Security Act 2013, supplementing the 5 kg of subsidized foodgrains already distributed through the Public Distribution System (PDS).

UPSC Civil Services Prelims PYQ:

Q. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements: (2018)

1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.

2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.

3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Answer: B

Stricter Anti-Conversion Law in Uttar Pradesh

GS 2: Polity and Governance: Anti-Conversion Law

Why is it in the news?

• The Uttar Pradesh Assembly has adopted amendments to its anti-conversion law, making it more stringent and potentially increasing its misuse.

More about the news

• Originally enacted in 2021, the law has already resulted in over 400 cases by 2023. The amendments include harsher penalties, with imprisonment of up to 20 years or even life for those found guilty of converting minors, women, or certain communities through force, threat, or coercion.
• Additionally, severe penalties and fines are prescribed for receiving foreign funds for unlawful conversions.
• A particularly concerning aspect is the stringent bail requirements, which mandate that the public prosecutor must be given a chance to oppose bail and that there must be reason to believe the accused is not guilty and unlikely to reoffend.
• This mirrors the bail-denying provisions in the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act (NDPS) and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
• A new and problematic feature of the amended law allows anyone to file a complaint against alleged forcible or fraudulent conversions. This change enables communal organizations and individuals to target those opting for or supporting inter-faith marriages. Previously, only the victim or a close family member could file such a complaint.
• The amendment likely stems from instances where bail was granted because the complainants were not the aggrieved parties. The justification for the law’s tightening is the claim of rising “forced conversions” in the state. However, it remains unclear if this is an actual trend or a result of the law’s misuse against inter-faith marriages.
• The law’s validity has been questioned as it appears to criminalize inter-faith marriages by treating “conversion by marriage” as unlawful. It declares such marriages null and void and requires prior notification to authorities for those intending to change their religion.
• These amendments exacerbate the violation of fundamental rights, reflecting a medieval mindset that is incompatible with a democratic government under a progressive Constitution.

Additional Information:

State Anti-Conversion Laws:

• Odisha (1967): The first state to enact a law against forceful and fraudulent religious conversions.
• Madhya Pradesh (1968): Introduced the Madhya Pradesh Dharma Swatantraya Adhiniyam, mandating notification to the District Magistrate for conversion activities under legal penalty.
• Other States: Arunachal Pradesh (1978), Gujarat (2003), Chhattisgarh (2000 and 2006), Rajasthan (2006 and 2008), Himachal Pradesh (2006 and 2019), Tamil Nadu (2002-2004), Jharkhand (2017), Uttarakhand (2018), Uttar Pradesh (2021), and Haryana (2022) have enacted laws prohibiting various forms of religious conversions, with stricter penalties for conversions involving SCs, STs, minors, and women.

Constitutional Rights: According to the various Judicial Pronouncements, forceful religious conversion is against the basic Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution.

• Article 14 (Equality Before the Law): Ensures all individuals are treated equally under the law, rejecting discrimination based on religious conversions.
• Article 21 (Right to Life): Protects the fundamental right to life and personal liberty, which is compromised by forceful religious conversions.
• Article 25 (Freedom of Conscience and Religious Freedom): Guarantees the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate one’s religion, which is violated by coercive conversion practices.

Need for an Anti-Conversion Law in India:

• Protect Traditions and Beliefs: To prevent conflicts from religious conversions and maintain the influence of specific religions.
• Prevent Social Conflicts: To avoid community disputes that can arise from religious conversions.
• Address Fraudulent Marriages: To counteract cases where individuals marry under false pretences of their religion and later coerce their partners to convert.
• Judicial Acknowledgement: The Supreme Court has recognized forced conversions as a violation of individual religious freedom and a threat to secularism.

In SC verdict, how CJI underlined substantive equality

GS 2: Polity and Governance: Sub-categorisation of SCs/STs

Why is it in the news?

• The Supreme Court’s landmark verdict on the sub-classification of Scheduled Caste (SC) and Scheduled Tribe (ST) quotas represents a significant development in equality jurisprudence.

More about the news

• Chief Justice of India (CJI) D.Y. Chandrachud, delivering the opinion for himself and Justice Manoj Misra in a 6-1 majority ruling, emphasized the principle of “substantive equality.”
• This principle, as articulated in The State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (2024), mandates that the law must account for historical injustices and different backgrounds, ensuring that the benefits of reservations extend to those who need them most.
• CJI Chandrachud highlighted that the Constitution today supports a broader interpretation of equality, aiming to make reservations more effective and inclusive.
• Historically, the Supreme Court’s approach to reservations was formalistic and restrictive. Early rulings, such as The State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951), viewed reservations as an exception to the principle of equal opportunity, leading the court to declare reservations in educational institutions unconstitutional.
• Similarly, in B Venkataramana v. The State of Madras (1951), the court limited the definition of “backward classes” for reservations in public jobs to Harijans and backward Hindus.
• This formalistic stance was further evidenced in Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992), where the court observed that Articles 15(4) and 16(4) were special provisions and set a 50% cap on total reservations. The court’s perspective evolved over time.
• In M R Balaji v State of Mysore (1962), the Supreme Court introduced a 50% ceiling on reservations, a limit that has remained contentious but enduring.
• The decision in State of Kerala v. N M Thomas (1975) marked a departure from formalistic views, with the court upholding a Kerala law that relaxed qualifying criteria for SC and ST candidates without viewing it as an exception to equality. The issue of efficiency in relation to reservations has also been significant.
• Article 335 of the Constitution requires that reservations not impair administrative efficiency. Initially, the court considered reservations potentially detrimental to efficiency, particularly in promotions. This view was evident in rulings like the 1992 Indra Sawhney judgment.
• However, the 1995 constitutional amendment allowed reservations in promotions and introduced “consequential seniority,” maintaining a balance between efficiency and reservation.
• CJI Chandrachud’s recent rulings have challenged the reservation-versus-merit binary. He has redefined the debate by framing reservations as a component of substantive equality rather than a mere exception.
• He argued that lowering qualifying standards for SC/ST candidates does not necessarily lead to inefficiency, asserting that achieving a minimum mark rather than the highest is sufficient to maintain administrative efficiency.
• This perspective underscores a more inclusive approach to equality, recognizing the need for reservations to address historical disadvantages and improve access to opportunities for SC/ST candidates.

Government’s initiatives to promote understanding of the Constitution

GS 2: Polity and Governance: Constitution

Why is it in the news?

• The Indian government has introduced several initiatives to enhance understanding of the Constitution and raise awareness about legal rights.

About the initiatives

Citizens’ Duties Awareness Programme (CDAP):

• Launched on November 26, 2019, it focuses on Fundamental Duties, reaching over 48.6 crore citizens through various means such as online pledge-taking, webinars, and social media campaigns.
• The program saw involvement from numerous ministries, local governments, and grassroots campaigns in 1000 digital villages across 16 states.

“Hamara Samvidhan Hamara Samman”:

• On January 24, 2024, the Department of Justice launched the “Hamara Samvidhan Hamara Samman” campaign to celebrate India’s 75th Republic Day.
• This year-long initiative promotes Constitutional principles through regional events and sub-campaigns like “Sabko Nyaya Har Ghar Nyaya” and “Nav Bharat Nav Sankalp,” featuring activities such as reading the Panch Pran Pledge in regional languages and organizing Nyaya Sewa Melas.

Other programs:

• The Designing Innovative Solutions for Holistic Access to Justice (DISHA) program initiated in 2021, aimed to bridge gaps in legal access. It engaged 15.30 lakh individuals with community programs and educational materials.
• The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) conducted a comprehensive legal literacy campaign, reaching 6.7 lakh villages and 4100 towns.
• The “Empowerment of Citizens through Legal Awareness and Outreach” campaign in 2022 and Legal Empowerment Camps in 2023-2024 furthered these efforts, benefiting over 11.46 lakh citizens.

Additional Information:

About Constitution Day:

• Constitution Day, also known as Samvidhan Divas or National Law Day, is celebrated in India on November 26th each year.
• This day commemorates the adoption of the Constitution of India on November 26, 1949 which came into force on January 26, 1950.
• Republic day (26th January) is celebrated as the day constitution of India came into effect.
• In 2015, the government decided to celebrate this day to promote constitutional values among citizens.

UPSC Civil Services PYQ’s:

Prelims:

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day :(2023)

Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country? (2023)

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

Answer: C

Q. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950? (2021)

(a) A Democratic Republic

(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic

(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Answer: B

Mains

Q. It would have been difficult for the Constituent Assembly to complete its historic task of drafting the Constitution for Independent India in just three years but for the experience gained with the Government of India Act, 1935. Discuss. (2015)